Historical change in morphemes
Posted: 04 Jan 2016 15:23
FROM: Richard Watson Todd (01/28/14 4:34 PM PST)
SUBJECT: Changes in free and bound morphemes
In the Linguistics class, we played with putting variations of morpheme use in Google Ngrams to see whether there had been any historical changes. Examples included:
more stupid v. stupider
more friendly v. friendlier
As a general rule, it seems that the variant with the bound morpheme (i.e. stupider, friendlier) is growing in use at the expense of the variant with the free morpheme.
Three questions on this:
1. How many words/phrases would you need to test for the hypothesis that morpheme use in English comparatives and superlatives is changing to be confirmed? Would you also need to use sources other than Google Ngrams (e.g. COHA)?
2. If the hypothesis is confirmed, can you posit an explanation for why this is happening?
3. Does this pattern of change hold for other linguistic features where there is a choice between use of free and bound morphemes?
SUBJECT: Changes in free and bound morphemes
In the Linguistics class, we played with putting variations of morpheme use in Google Ngrams to see whether there had been any historical changes. Examples included:
more stupid v. stupider
more friendly v. friendlier
As a general rule, it seems that the variant with the bound morpheme (i.e. stupider, friendlier) is growing in use at the expense of the variant with the free morpheme.
Three questions on this:
1. How many words/phrases would you need to test for the hypothesis that morpheme use in English comparatives and superlatives is changing to be confirmed? Would you also need to use sources other than Google Ngrams (e.g. COHA)?
2. If the hypothesis is confirmed, can you posit an explanation for why this is happening?
3. Does this pattern of change hold for other linguistic features where there is a choice between use of free and bound morphemes?